Prove measurability and establish that the area is zero for each of the following.
 Any set consisting of a single point.
 Any set consisting of finitely many points in the plane.
 The finite union of line segments in the plane.
 Proof. Since all rectangles are measurable with area equal to where and are the lengths of the edges of the rectangle, a single point is measurable with area 0, since a point is rectangle with

Proof. We prove by induction on , the number of points. For the case , the statement is true by part (a). Now, assume it is true for some . Then, we have a set of points in the plane and . Let be a point in the plane. By part (a), and . Thus,
But, , so
(Where Axiom 1 of area guarantees us that cannot be negative.) Thus, . Hence, the statement is true for points in a plane, and thus for all

Proof. We again use induction, now on , the number of lines in a plane. For , we let be a set with one line in a plane. Since a line is rectangle and all rectangles are measurable, we have . Further, since a line is a rectangle with either or , and so in either case, . Thus, the statement is true for a single line in the plane, the case .
Assume then that it is true for . Let be a set of lines in the plane. Then by the induction hypothesis, and . Let be a single line in the plane. By the case above, and . Thus, and (since ). Hence, the statement is true for lines in a plane, and so for all
The intersection of S and T can either be empty or nonempty. If it’s empty, then it’s a subset of S. If it’s nonempty, it must be that T is contained in S.
I’m sorry, I don’t understand why the intersection of S and T is a subset of S, in part (b).
Thanks, by the way, for publishing your solutions!
Oh, I get it! Nevermind… :)
Why is the intersection of S and T is a subset of S in part b?