Prove that if then

*Proof.* We can use the first exercise of this section (Section I.3.3, Exercise #1) and the previous exercise (Section I.3.3, Exercise #8) to compute

Then for the other equality, similarly, we have

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Stumbling Robot

A Fraction of a Dot
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Prove equivalence of different forms for additive inverses of fractions

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Prove that if then

*Proof.* We can use the first exercise of this section (Section I.3.3, Exercise #1) and the previous exercise (Section I.3.3, Exercise #8) to compute

Then for the other equality, similarly, we have

This is not exercise 10 :'(

[latextpage]

Being a little pedantic, you should first prove that $-(b^{-1}) = (-b)^{-1}$ in order to justify the transition from $-(b^{-1}a)$ to $((-b)^{-1}a)$.

wasn’t that proved already in exercise 8? I mean, we can go ahead and generalize saying that if (ab)^{-1} = a^{-1}b^{-1} then (a)^{-1} = a^{-1} , right? Correct me if I’m mistaken please.

This is not exercise 9 !!!

Ha. Good point! I did Exercise #10 twice it seems. Fixed now.

this is not excercise 10 :(